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Originally Posted by Olifant  Yes but it was not to "RULE" over the blacks. You are equating Apartheid to slavery in the US where blacks were disenfranchised but had to work for the US economy. Blacks here were free to go elsewhere and work and live. They simply did not have access as citizens to the infrastructures of the white government without proper doccumentation etc. |
WHY WOULD THEY EVEN NEED DOCUMENTATION?! That doesn't make any sense, requiring a permit to visit a specific part of their own country! And blacks in South Africa were disenfranchised as well. The Separate Representation of Voters Act was meant to remove blacks from federal elections. Now they had their own council, but that council had to answer to the white South African government, so really there was almost no control.