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Old 07-25-2007, 03:43 PM   #9 (permalink)
fxashun
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Quote:
Originally Posted by CrazyFlamingos View Post

The conclusion that the vector for HIV involves sex or drugs in most cases is obvious.

The conclusion that it is a gay disease is ridiculous.

HIV probably entered the U.S. through a male homosexual. Therefore it spread first to gay men and still infects more gay men than other groups in the U.S. (This is also the case in Europe.)

In other countries HIV is not found predominantly among gay men and the most common vectors are heterosexual prostitutes and IV drug users.

I don't know what your point in opening this thread is but those are the facts.
My point is that I have heard a certain poster say that HIV isn't a "gay" disease. But U.S. transmission rates indicate otherwise. And I quote my original post...
"Now when you come to that realization, how can any gay man say that HIV doesn't have a distinct "male homosexual" slant even more so than the drug angle? Especially as it relates to the disease in the U.S."

In the U.S. it seems to be predominantly "gay biased" disease. So why would someone be called a homophobe or anti-gay simply stating that fact?
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