Sodomy & The Bible - Page 3

alias · 09-21-2006, 03:22 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by foundit66

Oh dear GAWD when will you learn that asking the same question over and over again just gets you the same response?

It DOES NOT SAY.
The people of Sodom could have been planning to interrogate and torture the visitors. They could have been planning to rob them. They could have been planning to try and convert them to Hari Krishnas.
It DOES NOT SAY.

You blindly assume the two "knowing" mean the same thing.
I have already told you that I acknowledge the Bible uses "know" as a means to describe heterosexual intercourse carnal knowledge.

But there is NO EVIDENCE that "to know" is ever used in the bible as a means to describe homosexual sex.
You CLAIMING that is what they mean here IS NOT evidence of that.

Please STOP answering questions that have already been addressed NUMEROUS times and start addressing these points...

1) Show me ANYWHERE ELSE in the Bible where "to know" is used for homosexual sex. Can't do it, can you.
2) Why is it that MULTIPLE Bible passages talk about Sodom and Gomorrah and their sin, but make no mention of perversion or sexual immorality?
If the sin was "homosexuality" as you claim, then why do other bible passages do not specify?
3) The context of the time DID NOT CONSIDER HOMOSEXUAL SEX AS SEX.
And yet you insist that "to know" meant gay sex.
4) WHY did the earlier interpreters of the Bible have a DIFFERENT view than you now have? WHY did they see the "sin" of Sodom and Gomorrah as something ENTIRELY DIFFERENT for CENTURIES???

I know you're not that stupid. I also know because of your agenda you will not be honest. So be it.

What did the earlier interpreters of the bible say the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah was? I heard a homo site say it was destroyed because of inhospitality. Now that is funny.

foundit66 · 09-21-2006, 03:36 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

I know you're not that stupid. I also know because of your agenda you will not be honest. So be it.

And thus, alias slips in some snide insults, ignoring all my arguments and responses, and pretends he has proven something he hasn't.

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

What did the earlier interpreters of the bible say the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah was? I heard a homo site say it was destroyed because of inhospitality. Now that is funny.

Why is that funny?
Lot's wife was supposedly turned into a "pillar of salt" because she looked at something she wasn't supposed to.
It's not much of a stretch from killing somebody because they looked at something to wiping out a village because of inhospitality.
The Bible frequently harps on hospitality. One of Jesus's statements about Judgment Day includes asking people when they were hospitable to people who were less fortunate than them.

alias · 09-21-2006, 08:06 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by foundit66

And thus, alias slips in some snide insults, ignoring all my arguments and responses, and pretends he has proven something he hasn't.

Why is that funny?
Lot's wife was supposedly turned into a "pillar of salt" because she looked at something she wasn't supposed to.
It's not much of a stretch from killing somebody because they looked at something to wiping out a village because of inhospitality.
The Bible frequently harps on hospitality. One of Jesus's statements about Judgment Day includes asking people when they were hospitable to people who were less fortunate than them.

The bible clearly states in other passages that homosexuality is sin. You can't deny that. The men of sodom wanted to know the men who came to lot's house and he instead offered his daughters who had not known a man. You know what is being said here. How can you claim to be so intelligent and deny this? The wicked ungodly thing being done here mentioned in Peter and Jude was not inhospitality on the part of Lot. I love it when unbelievers try to explain away the obvious in the bible. I just keep it going so everyone can see how utterly ridiculous their arguments are.

Why was Lot's wife turned to a pillar of salt? Disobedience. They were all told to not look back by God and she did. Everything in this story is an example of ungodliness behavior and disobedience and the consequences. You should thank God you were not around in those days or you have been burned to a cinder. You should be thanking God as long as you are alive you still have time to change your ways and repent. Just a suggestion. You have the story of the justice of God for an example. They did not have the luxury.

foundit66 · 09-21-2006, 10:14 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

The bible clearly states in other passages that homosexuality is sin. You can't deny that.

I have explicitly stated that on a variety of occasions.
In fact, in my very first post in this thread, I explicitly acknowledged that.

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

The men of sodom wanted to know the men who came to lot's house and he instead offered his daughters who had not known a man. You know what is being said here. How can you claim to be so intelligent and deny this?

Asked and answered.
The real question is why do you KEEP IGNORING the reasons why your assumption is invalid while pretending that I'm the one ignoring things?

1) Show me ANYWHERE ELSE in the Bible where "to know" is used for homosexual sex. Can't do it, can you.
2) Why is it that MULTIPLE Bible passages talk about Sodom and Gomorrah and their sin, but make no mention of perversion or sexual immorality?
If the sin was "homosexuality" as you claim, then why do other bible passages do not specify?
3) The context of the time DID NOT CONSIDER HOMOSEXUAL SEX AS SEX.
And yet you insist that "to know" meant gay sex.
4) WHY did the earlier interpreters of the Bible have a DIFFERENT view than you now have? WHY did they see the "sin" of Sodom and Gomorrah as something ENTIRELY DIFFERENT for CENTURIES???

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

The wicked ungodly thing being done here mentioned in Peter and Jude was not inhospitality on the part of Lot.

Well DUH!
God supposedly sent the angels there TO SAVE Lot.
Of course LOT wasn't the one being inhospitable....
Lot was the good guy according to the bible.

I never claimed Lot was the one being inhospitable. Nobody claimed that...

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

I love it when unbelievers try to explain away the obvious in the bible. I just keep it going so everyone can see how utterly ridiculous their arguments are.

The funny thing is, YOU AREN'T EVEN TALKING ABOUT WHAT MY ARGUMENTS ARE...

1) Show me ANYWHERE ELSE in the Bible where "to know" is used for homosexual sex. Can't do it, can you.
2) Why is it that MULTIPLE Bible passages talk about Sodom and Gomorrah and their sin, but make no mention of perversion or sexual immorality?
If the sin was "homosexuality" as you claim, then why do other bible passages do not specify?
3) The context of the time DID NOT CONSIDER HOMOSEXUAL SEX AS SEX.
And yet you insist that "to know" meant gay sex.
4) WHY did the earlier interpreters of the Bible have a DIFFERENT view than you now have? WHY did they see the "sin" of Sodom and Gomorrah as something ENTIRELY DIFFERENT for CENTURIES???

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

Why was Lot's wife turned to a pillar of salt? Disobedience. They were all told to not look back by God and she did. Everything in this story is an example of ungodliness behavior and disobedience and the consequences.

Oh. I see.
It's unfathomable to believe that God destroyed a village because of "inhospitability", but killing a woman just for one act of disobedience, where all she did was look, is perfectly acceptable...

Do you even realize when you're getting your ass whupped?

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

You should thank God you were not around in those days or you have been burned to a cinder. You should be thanking God as long as you are alive you still have time to change your ways and repent. Just a suggestion. You have the story of the justice of God for an example. They did not have the luxury.

Yawn!
The good ol' Christian reply to everything.
Big ol', bad ol' God boogeyman will get you, or he might have gotten you, or you should be afraid he's going to get you...

Your religion is so ruled by fear it isn't even funny. Your very life is ruled by fear, as you repeatedly demonstrate. You lash out blindly out of fear...

Yet you think it is me who should be scared. Just like you...
I realize you can't see the irony in that, but it's there.

alias · 09-21-2006, 10:22 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by foundit66

I have explicitly stated that on a variety of occasions.
In fact, in my very first post in this thread, I explicitly acknowledged that.

Asked and answered.
The real question is why do you KEEP IGNORING the reasons why your assumption is invalid while pretending that I'm the one ignoring things?

1) Show me ANYWHERE ELSE in the Bible where "to know" is used for homosexual sex. Can't do it, can you.
2) Why is it that MULTIPLE Bible passages talk about Sodom and Gomorrah and their sin, but make no mention of perversion or sexual immorality?
If the sin was "homosexuality" as you claim, then why do other bible passages do not specify?
3) The context of the time DID NOT CONSIDER HOMOSEXUAL SEX AS SEX.
And yet you insist that "to know" meant gay sex.
4) WHY did the earlier interpreters of the Bible have a DIFFERENT view than you now have? WHY did they see the "sin" of Sodom and Gomorrah as something ENTIRELY DIFFERENT for CENTURIES???

Well DUH!
God supposedly sent the angels there TO SAVE Lot.
Of course LOT wasn't the one being inhospitable....
Lot was the good guy according to the bible.

I never claimed Lot was the one being inhospitable. Nobody claimed that...

The funny thing is, YOU AREN'T EVEN TALKING ABOUT WHAT MY ARGUMENTS ARE...

1) Show me ANYWHERE ELSE in the Bible where "to know" is used for homosexual sex. Can't do it, can you.
2) Why is it that MULTIPLE Bible passages talk about Sodom and Gomorrah and their sin, but make no mention of perversion or sexual immorality?
If the sin was "homosexuality" as you claim, then why do other bible passages do not specify?
3) The context of the time DID NOT CONSIDER HOMOSEXUAL SEX AS SEX.
And yet you insist that "to know" meant gay sex.
4) WHY did the earlier interpreters of the Bible have a DIFFERENT view than you now have? WHY did they see the "sin" of Sodom and Gomorrah as something ENTIRELY DIFFERENT for CENTURIES???

Oh. I see.
It's unfathomable to believe that God destroyed a village because of "inhospitability", but killing a woman just for one act of disobedience, where all she did was look, is perfectly acceptable...

Do you even realize when you're getting your ass whupped?

Yawn!
The good ol' Christian reply to everything.
Big ol', bad ol' God boogeyman will get you, or he might have gotten you, or you should be afraid he's going to get you...

Your religion is so ruled by fear it isn't even funny. Your very life is ruled by fear, as you repeatedly demonstrate. You lash out blindly out of fear...

Yet you think it is me who should be scared. Just like you...
I realize you can't see the irony in that, but it's there.

There doesn't have to another passage where "to know" means homosexual sex. It is a given in the King James English that "to know" means to have sex. Adam knew Eve. That means they had sex. You're like a little kid who wears on his parents until he gets his way. I can't help it. It says what it says and means exactly what it says. Not my fault you will not accept it. Everyone else on the planet does except homos and that is understandable.

If Lot's wife wasn't turned into a pillar of salt for disobedience by looking back after being told not to, then why? God can do whatever he wants to and you aint gonna do a damn thing about it. I can see a lesson here. Can you?

As far as getting my ass whooped, I am confident there are people reading this and wondering why you keep arguing when the evidence is as plain as the wart on your nose.

foundit66 · 09-22-2006, 12:20 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

There doesn't have to another passage where "to know" means homosexual sex.

For you?
Of course not.
You don't need any reason at all...
You just make up whatever crap is convenient for you. No wonder you cling to the whole "homosexual sodom & gomorrah" crap without any capability to answer my arguments.

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

It is a given in the King James English that "to know" means to have sex. Adam knew Eve. That means they had sex.

HETEROSEXUAL sex.
Like I stated, historically they NEVER REFERRED to gay sex as "sex".
Your assumption that "to know" means "sex" is ignoring the historical context of how they looked at "gay sex".

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

It says what it says and means exactly what it says. Not my fault you will not accept it. Everyone else on the planet does except homos and that is understandable.

"everyone else"?
You're grossly exaggerating.
And more to a point, why didn't they interpret it as "gay sex" for centuries after the bible was written???

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

If Lot's wife wasn't turned into a pillar of salt for disobedience by looking back after being told not to, then why?

Man. You can't keep track of what is being said.
You have no clue as to why we were discussing that, do you.
Not a clue.

YOU claimed that killing an entire village because of "inhospitality" didn't make sense.
I pointed out that he killed Lot's wife just for looking back. A sign of disobedience.
Then you lost track of the conversation, and now you actually think I'm arguing that it wasn't because of disobedience?

You repeat yourself over and over again because you can't think of anything else to say...

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

God can do whatever he wants to and you aint gonna do a damn thing about it. I can see a lesson here. Can you?

I can see a lesson in what ACTUALLY happens.
Not myths.
Not fairy tales.
So what is God "doing whatever he wants" these days?

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

As far as getting my ass whooped, I am confident there are people reading this and wondering why you keep arguing when the evidence is as plain as the wart on your nose.

Continue to tell yourself that.
Continue telling yourself that nobody is noticing the arguments you can't address.

1) Show me ANYWHERE ELSE in the Bible where "to know" is used for homosexual sex. Can't do it, can you.
2) Why is it that MULTIPLE Bible passages talk about Sodom and Gomorrah and their sin, but make no mention of perversion or sexual immorality?
If the sin was "homosexuality" as you claim, then why do other bible passages do not specify?
3) The context of the time DID NOT CONSIDER HOMOSEXUAL SEX AS SEX.
And yet you insist that "to know" meant gay sex.
4) WHY did the earlier interpreters of the Bible have a DIFFERENT view than you now have? WHY did they see the "sin" of Sodom and Gomorrah as something ENTIRELY DIFFERENT for CENTURIES???
5) Why would you offer a bunch of homosexuals A WOMAN if they were interested in having sex with men...

alias · 09-22-2006, 12:25 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by foundit66

For you?
Of course not.
You don't need any reason at all...
You just make up whatever crap is convenient for you. No wonder you cling to the whole "homosexual sodom & gomorrah" crap without any capability to answer my arguments.

HETEROSEXUAL sex.
Like I stated, historically they NEVER REFERRED to gay sex as "sex".
Your assumption that "to know" means "sex" is ignoring the historical context of how they looked at "gay sex".

"everyone else"?
You're grossly exaggerating.
And more to a point, why didn't they interpret it as "gay sex" for centuries after the bible was written???

Man. You can't keep track of what is being said.
You have no clue as to why we were discussing that, do you.
Not a clue.

YOU claimed that killing an entire village because of "inhospitality" didn't make sense.
I pointed out that he killed Lot's wife just for looking back. A sign of disobedience.
Then you lost track of the conversation, and now you actually think I'm arguing that it wasn't because of disobedience?

You repeat yourself over and over again because you can't think of anything else to say...

I can see a lesson in what ACTUALLY happens.
Not myths.
Not fairy tales.
So what is God "doing whatever he wants" these days?

Continue to tell yourself that.
Continue telling yourself that nobody is noticing the arguments you can't address.

1) Show me ANYWHERE ELSE in the Bible where "to know" is used for homosexual sex. Can't do it, can you.
2) Why is it that MULTIPLE Bible passages talk about Sodom and Gomorrah and their sin, but make no mention of perversion or sexual immorality?
If the sin was "homosexuality" as you claim, then why do other bible passages do not specify?
3) The context of the time DID NOT CONSIDER HOMOSEXUAL SEX AS SEX.
And yet you insist that "to know" meant gay sex.
4) WHY did the earlier interpreters of the Bible have a DIFFERENT view than you now have? WHY did they see the "sin" of Sodom and Gomorrah as something ENTIRELY DIFFERENT for CENTURIES???
5) Why would you offer a bunch of homosexuals A WOMAN if they were interested in having sex with men...

I aint gonna read all that stuff. I don't need more than one place in the bible referring "to know" between men refers to homo sex. Are you gonna make the rules here of what can be used or how much or whatever? Bullshit. If there is only one place then there is only one place. Who the hell says there has to be more than one before it is a fact of truth? You still will not say what the ungodly and wicked things were if they were not homosexuality that Peter and Jude refer to. They all fit and there is no discrepency. The only problem is you will not admit the reason for the destruction of Sodm and Gomorrah was homosexaulity. There is no other sin mentioned.

I'll spar with ya some more later. I'm tired. See ya tomorrow.

intangible child · 09-22-2006, 12:40 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

Funny. Okay, I'll bite. What according to you was the sin of Sodom and Gomorrah. This should be good.

Let me, they were thrown into a prison (city) by rulers that made so many laws, that everyone was guilty of something, and they started butt-fucking each other because they thought they would never get out, no matter what God they prayed too!

STOP STATE AND FEDERAL SPONSERED ?????????????

Yes on 66 | Fix Three Strikes

Nebraskaboy · 09-22-2006, 04:03 AM

I don't care what the Bible says about this. If people want to do it in the butt, let 'em do it in the butt.

foundit66 · 09-22-2006, 10:06 AM

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

I aint gonna read all that stuff. I don't need more than one place in the bible referring "to know" between men refers to homo sex.

In other words, you're admitting your own refusal to look at the big picture of things. You would rather make your conclusion based off of easy information that already coincides with your pre-existing beliefs, than take in all the data.

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

Are you gonna make the rules here of what can be used or how much or whatever? Bullshit.

Forest for the trees.
I'm not making "the rules here".
I'm showing A BETTER WAY of looking at things and figuring them out.
You're back-peddling.

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

If there is only one place then there is only one place. Who the hell says there has to be more than one before it is a fact of truth?

I've already explained this. REPEATEDLY.
The biblical view was that gay sex WAS NOT sex. Therefore, your assumption that "to know" is versatile as to meaning either heterosexual or homosexual knowledge has no basis.

And your claim that this example is proof unto itself is inane. It's like claiming "to know" means to tickle the bottoms of their feet, and then insisting that this passage is proof of that.

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

You still will not say what the ungodly and wicked things were if they were not homosexuality that Peter and Jude refer to. They all fit and there is no discrepency.

I refuse to guess when there IS NOT ENOUGH EVIDENCE.
And I already gave you a couple of other examples that would have fit.
Let's say their "sin" was inhospitality and pre-marital sex.
It fits all the "clues".

You never even tried to refute that possibility.

The point is that you are guessing ONE possibility when there is a LONG LIST of possibilities.

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

The only problem is you will not admit the reason for the destruction of Sodm and Gomorrah was homosexaulity. There is no other sin mentioned.

Specific sins ARE NOT MENTIONED with regards to Sodom and Gomorrah.
They call it "wickedness" or "ungodliness" or "perversion", which are so vague it isn't even funny.
But you can't see that. You insist it has to mean "homosexuality".

Quote:

Originally Posted by alias

I'll spar with ya some more later. I'm tired. See ya tomorrow.

This isn't even "sparring" alias.
All you're doing is repeating yourself ad nausieum, while you ignore my responses to your arguments.

1) Show me ANYWHERE ELSE in the Bible where "to know" is used for homosexual sex. Can't do it, can you.
2) Why is it that MULTIPLE Bible passages talk about Sodom and Gomorrah and their sin, but make no mention of perversion or sexual immorality?
If the sin was "homosexuality" as you claim, then why do other bible passages do not specify?
3) The context of the time DID NOT CONSIDER HOMOSEXUAL SEX AS SEX.
And yet you insist that "to know" meant gay sex.
4) WHY did the earlier interpreters of the Bible have a DIFFERENT view than you now have? WHY did they see the "sin" of Sodom and Gomorrah as something ENTIRELY DIFFERENT for CENTURIES???
5) Why would you offer a bunch of homosexuals A WOMAN if they were interested in having sex with men...

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